Top 27 CISA Exam MCQs | Free CISA Practice Quiz
The CISA certification is one of the most sought-after and globally recognized credentials in the field of information systems auditing, control, and security. The CISA exam tests your knowledge and expertise in areas such as IT governance, risk management, security, and audit and assurance practices. It requires a deep understanding of the concepts, frameworks, and standards related to the field.
To help you prepare for this rigorous exam, we have compiled a wide range of MCQs that cover all the topics and domains of the CISA exam prep. These questions are designed to test your knowledge and understanding of the key concepts, and help you identify areas that require further attention and practice.
Our team of experts has carefully curated this collection of CISA exam MCQs from various credible sources, including previous CISA exam papers, official study guides, and industry-leading textbooks. We have also included detailed explanations and references for each question to help you understand the concepts better and prepare effectively.
Top 27 CISA Exam MCQs
Whether you are a first-time CISA candidate or a seasoned professional, our blog provides you with the top CISA exam MCQs to help you ace the exam and advance your career in information systems auditing and security.
1. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of a penetration test?
a). Identify vulnerabilities in a system or network
b). Test the strength of the security controls in place
c). Evaluate the effectiveness of incident response procedures
d). Assess the overall risk level of the organization
Answer: A. Identify vulnerabilities in a system or network
Explanation: The primary objective of a penetration test is to identify vulnerabilities in a system or network by simulating an attack. This helps organizations to identify and address weaknesses before they can be exploited by attackers.
2. Which of the following is an example of a detective control?
a). Access control lists
b). Firewalls
c). Intrusion detection systems
d). Encryption
Answer: C. Intrusion detection systems
Explanation: A detective control is designed to detect or identify a security breach or unauthorized activity. Intrusion detection systems are an example of a detective control as they monitor network traffic for signs of potential attacks.
3. Which of the following best describes the principle of least privilege?
a). Giving users access to all systems and data
b). Restricting access to only the necessary systems and data
c). Sharing passwords to reduce the risk of losing them
d). Providing access to systems and data based on job titles
Answer: B. Restricting access to only the necessary systems and data
Explanation: The principle of least privilege is a security concept in which users are granted the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job functions. This helps to reduce the risk of unauthorized access and limit the potential damage in the event of a security breach.
4. Which of the following is a common technique used in social engineering attacks?
a). Encryption
b). Firewall evasion
c). Password cracking
d). Phishing
Answer: D. Phishing
Explanation: Phishing is a type of social engineering attack in which attackers use deceptive emails, text messages, or other forms of communication to trick users into divulging sensitive information such as passwords or credit card numbers.
5. Which of the following is an example of a technical control?
a). Security awareness training
b). Background checks on employees
d). Access control lists
d). Physical access controls
Answer: C. Access control lists
Explanation: Technical controls are designed to prevent or detect security threats through the use of technology. Access control lists are an example of a technical control as they restrict access to specific systems or data based on predefined rules.
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6. Which of the following is a common technique used in denial-of-service attacks?
a). Social engineering
b). Password cracking
c). Firewall evasion
d). Flood attacks
Answer: D. Flood attacks
Explanation: A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is a type of cyber-attack in which an attacker floods a network or server with traffic or requests in an attempt to overwhelm the system and cause it to crash or become unavailable.
7. Which of the following is a key benefit of implementing an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
a). It can detect and alert administrators to potential security threats
b). It can encrypt sensitive data to prevent unauthorized access
c). It can provide detailed reports on network usage
d). It can block known and unknown attacks in real time
Answer: D. It can block known and unknown attacks in real time
Explanation: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a type of security control that monitors network traffic for known and unknown security threats and can block them in real time. This helps to prevent attacks from succeeding and limits the potential damage to the organization.
8. What is the primary objective of an Information Security Management System (ISMS)?
a) Ensuring the confidentiality of information
b) Ensuring the availability of information
c) Ensuring the integrity of information
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The primary objective of an ISMS is to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets.
9. Which of the following is a key component of a disaster recovery plan?
a) Business continuity plan
b) Backup and recovery procedures
c) Risk assessment
d) Firewall configuration
Answer: b) Backup and recovery procedures
Explanation: Backup and recovery procedures are a key component of a disaster recovery plan, as they enable the restoration of critical data and systems after a disaster.
10. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of an IT governance framework?
a) Ensuring compliance with laws and regulations
b) Aligning IT with business objectives
c) Managing IT risks
d) Implementing security controls
Answer: d) Implementing security controls
Explanation: Implementing security controls is a key component of an information security program, but it is not a primary function of an IT governance framework.
Frequently Asked CISA Exam Questions
11. Which of the following is a type of access control mechanism?
a) Firewall
b) Encryption
c) Authentication
d) All of the above
Answer: c) Authentication
Explanation: Authentication is a type of access control mechanism that verifies the identity of a user or system.
12. Which of the following is NOT a common vulnerability in a wireless network?
a) Weak encryption
b) Rogue access points
c) Malware infections
d) Signal interference
Answer: c) Malware infections
Explanation: Malware infections are not a common vulnerability in a wireless network, as they can occur on any network.
13. Which of the following is a common method used to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability?
a) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
b) Denial-of-service (DoS) attack
c) Brute-force attack
d) Data exfiltration
Answer: a) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Explanation: Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a common method used to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability, as it allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page viewed by other users.
14. Which of the following is a key principle of the ISO/IEC 27001 standard?
a) Continuous improvement
b) Risk avoidance
c) Perimeter security
d) Least privilege
Answer: a) Continuous improvement
Explanation: Continuous improvement is a key principle of the ISO/IEC 27001 standard, as it emphasizes the importance of regularly reviewing and improving an organization's information security management system.
15. Which of the following is a common control used to protect against social engineering attacks?
a) Firewalls
b) Antivirus software
c) Security awareness training
d) Intrusion detection systems
Answer: c) Security awareness training
Explanation: Security awareness training is a common control used to protect against social engineering attacks, as it helps employees identify and avoid common tactics used by attackers.
16. Which of the following is a common type of phishing attack?
a) Denial-of-service (DoS) attack
b) Brute-force attack
c) Spear-phishing attack
d) Man-in-the-middle (MitM) attack
Answer: c) Spear-phishing attack
Explanation: Spear-phishing attacks are a common type of phishing attack that target specific individuals or groups within an organization.
17. Which of the following is a key characteristic of symmetric encryption?
a) Uses two different keys for encryption and decryption
b) Requires a public key and private key pair
c) Requires both parties to have a shared secret key
d) Allows for secure communication over an untrusted network
Answer: c) Requires both parties to have a shared secret key
Explanation: Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption that uses the same secret key to encrypt and decrypt data. This means that both the sender and receiver must have the same secret key in order to communicate securely. Unlike asymmetric encryption, which uses a public key and a private key, symmetric encryption does not require a separate key for decryption.
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18. Which of the following is a technique used to verify the integrity of data during transmission?
a) Hashing
b) Encryption
c) Digital signature
d) Steganography
Answer: a) Hashing
Explanation: Hashing is a technique used to verify the integrity of data during transmission. It involves creating a fixed-length, unique digital fingerprint of a message or data file. This fingerprint, also known as a hash value, can be used to verify that the data has not been tampered with or corrupted during transmission. Hashing does not provide confidentiality, but it can provide assurance that the data has not been altered in any way.
19. Which of the following is an example of a preventive control?
a) Firewall
b) Intrusion detection system
c) Backup and recovery procedures
d) Security awareness training
Answer: a) Firewall
Explanation: Preventive controls are designed to prevent security incidents from occurring. A firewall is an example of a preventive control because it is used to block unauthorized access to a network or system. Other examples of preventive controls include access controls, physical security measures, and network segmentation.
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a digital signature?
a) It provides confidentiality
b) It uses a secret key for verification
c) It can be decrypted without a key
d) It provides non-repudiation
Answer: d) It provides non-repudiation
Explanation: A digital signature is a cryptographic mechanism that provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation. It is created by using a private key to sign a message or data file, and can be verified using the corresponding public key. Digital signatures are used to ensure that a message or file has not been altered, and to provide proof of the sender's identity.
21. Which of the following is an example of a detective control?
a) Fire suppression system
b) Intrusion detection system
c) Access control list
d) Security awareness training
Answer: b) Intrusion detection system
Explanation: Detective controls are designed to detect security incidents after they have occurred. An intrusion detection system is an example of a detective control because it is used to monitor network traffic and identify suspicious activity. Other examples of detective controls include security log analysis, vulnerability scanning, and security audits.
22. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a vulnerability assessment?
a) It is used to determine the likelihood of a threat occurring
b) It identifies weaknesses in security controls
c) It provides a baseline for security metrics
d) It measures the effectiveness of security controls
Answer: b) It identifies weaknesses in security controls
Explanation: A vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies weaknesses in security controls. It is used to evaluate the effectiveness of existing security controls, and to identify areas where additional controls may be needed. Vulnerability assessments do not assess the likelihood of a threat occurring, but they can provide a baseline for security metrics.
23. Which of the following statements about the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is true?
a) It only applies to organizations within the European Union (EU)
b) It only applies to organizations that process personal data of EU citizens
c) It applies to all organizations, regardless of location, that process personal data of EU citizens
d) It only applies to organizations with more than 500 employees
Answer: c) It applies to all organizations, regardless of location, that process personal data of EU citizens.
Explanation: GDPR is a regulation that protects the personal data and privacy of individuals within the EU. However, it also applies to all organizations, regardless of location, that process personal data of EU citizens.
24. Which of the following is not an example of a technical control?
a) Firewall
b) Antivirus software
c) Password policy
d) Security awareness training
Answer: d) Security awareness training
Explanation: Technical controls are measures that use technology to prevent, detect or mitigate security risks. Firewall, antivirus software and password policy are examples of technical controls, whereas security awareness training is considered a non-technical control.
25. Which of the following is not a type of intrusion detection system?
a) Host-based IDS (HIDS)
b) Network-based IDS (NIDS)
c) Anomaly-based IDS (AIDS)
d) Virus-based IDS (VIDS)
Answer: d) Virus-based IDS (VIDS)
Explanation: Virus-based IDS (VIDS) is not a type of intrusion detection system. The correct options for types of IDS are Host-based IDS (HIDS), Network-based IDS (NIDS), and Anomaly-based IDS (AIDS).
26. Which of the following is a method of social engineering?
a) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
b) Phishing
c) SQL injection
d) DNS spoofing
Answer: b) Phishing
Explanation: Phishing is a method of social engineering in which an attacker sends a fraudulent message to a victim in order to trick them into providing sensitive information such as passwords or credit card numbers.
27. Which of the following is a key feature of a business continuity plan (BCP)?
a) It focuses on recovering from a cyberattack
b) It only applies to the IT department
c) It addresses all aspects of business operations
d) It is only necessary for large organizations
Answer: c) It addresses all aspects of business operations
Explanation: A business continuity plan (BCP) is a set of procedures and policies that an organization creates to ensure that essential business functions can continue during and after a disaster. A key feature of a BCP is that it addresses all aspects of business operations, not just the IT department.
Summing up - CISA Exam MCQs
Obtaining a CISA certification can significantly enhance career growth in the field of information systems audit, security, and control. The CISA exam is a comprehensive and rigorous assessment that tests the proficiency of candidates in various areas of information systems auditing, control, and security. Achieving this certification not only validates one's knowledge and skills but also demonstrates a commitment to the profession and a willingness to keep up with the evolving technological landscape.
With the increasing demand for skilled information systems auditors and security professionals, obtaining a CISA can open up new career opportunities and lead to higher salaries. As such, those who aspire to advance their career in the field of information systems auditing and security should consider pursuing the CISA Certification. Get in touch with our experts today if you are planning to take CISA course training online
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